which the gambler reaches his goal, when it is +1. The state-value function then gives the
successive sweeps of value iteration, and the final policy found, for the case of .
Why does the optimal policy for the gambler's problem have such a curious form? In particular,
for capital of 50 it bets it all on one flip, but for capital of 51 it does not. Why is this a good
termination with capital of 0 and 100 dollars, giving them values of 0 and 1 respectively. Show
your results graphically as in Figure 4.6. Are your results stable as ?
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